(no subject)
Dec. 27th, 2018 02:28 pmNone of the history books I read in school ever drew a connection between the harvest of cotton by Southern slaves and the production of cotton cloth in New England. They always talked about slave cotton in terms of trade to Europe, so New England’s textiles were treated as if they’d just appeared by magic. Reading about it now, I got to wondering if anyone ever tried to kill the trade on the purchasing side rather than the production side.
The answer appears to be “yes, but mostly in Britain”: http://www.quakersintheworld.org/quakers-in-action/153/Boycotting-Goods-Produced-by-Slaves Even with the unpopularity of slavery in the North, boycotts didn’t get too far there. Which makes me worry about the ultimate feasibility of our modern attempts at boycotting human rights violators that control a large chunk of the market. How much damage can we actually do to near-monopolies?
The answer appears to be “yes, but mostly in Britain”: http://www.quakersintheworld.org/quakers-in-action/153/Boycotting-Goods-Produced-by-Slaves Even with the unpopularity of slavery in the North, boycotts didn’t get too far there. Which makes me worry about the ultimate feasibility of our modern attempts at boycotting human rights violators that control a large chunk of the market. How much damage can we actually do to near-monopolies?